tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-8743102750721348863.post2319490364513596757..comments2024-03-28T06:30:58.474-07:00Comments on Old European culture: Embassyoldeuropeanculturehttp://www.blogger.com/profile/07880222013739472782noreply@blogger.comBlogger2125tag:blogger.com,1999:blog-8743102750721348863.post-77501737004855203202015-07-03T02:15:20.520-07:002015-07-03T02:15:20.520-07:00This is indeed is a very complex question Andrew. ...This is indeed is a very complex question Andrew. And I don't think there is one answer to it. Language and culture mixing is a continuous process, which often has loops and intersected branches. It is also never a one way process. All of the above could have happened and probably did happen. But I am particularly interested in these words (and many other from the same period of which I will talk in other posts) because they appear in writing in the 5th and 6th century BC Greek writings already mangled and without root in Greek. This points to already old borrowing from another language. As I said Balkan was always the place where people mixed, not replaced each other. I believe that Ancient Greeks were just such mixture. I don't believe that Pelasgians spoke an unknown lost language. I don't believe that any of the old European languages are truly lost. They are all now mixed into our modern Languages. This is where I don't agree with the current Indoeuropean languages theory which talks about language replacement. I believe in language merging. Like in any merging it is all about percentages and sometimes the proportions are such that one language disappears leaving only traces in the mixture, but again we are talking about merging not replacement. oldeuropeanculturehttps://www.blogger.com/profile/07880222013739472782noreply@blogger.comtag:blogger.com,1999:blog-8743102750721348863.post-31287749809356775382015-07-02T19:33:38.853-07:002015-07-02T19:33:38.853-07:00No one seriously doubts that there were Balkan lan...No one seriously doubts that there were Balkan languages spoken other than Greek in areas adjacent to back in the Bronze Age. No one believes that Slavic languages materialized out of nowhere in the 5th century when the Slavic people expanded. But, the question, properly poses is when, where, in which direction and how were the words shared?<br /><br />1. Did Greek borrow words from a language ancestral to Slavic? If so, where?<br />2. Did Slavic borrow words from Greek? This could have happened much later in the Southern Balkans.<br />3. Did Slavic and Greek both borrow words from another language which may have been a sister Balkan language to Greek and an Indo-European Balkan language substrate language to South Slavic?<br />4. Is Slavic a Balkan language, perhaps adopted by conquering Slavs in much the same way as the Eastern Roman Empire adopted the Greek language of the people it conquered?<br />5. Is Slavic a language of the classical era of a people with origins in what is now European Russia who conquered territory from the Baltics to the Balkans starting around the 5th Century, and picked up borrowed and substrate words along the way?<br />6. Were words borrowed by Greek borrowed when it was spoken in the Aegean region, or did Greek and pre-Slavic word borrowing take place closer to a proto-Indo-European Urheimat from which both expanded at differing times?<br /><br />The Indo-European cognates that you identify seem to disfavor the possibility that these words have roots in non-Indo-European substrate languages that existed before Greek arrived in the Aegean and also before the Indo-European Balkan languages that were spoken in the Balkans before the Slavic languages were spoken there. In other words, you don't seem to be picking up on non-Ind-European pre-Greek Pelasgian or Tyrrhenian substrate words. Otherwise they wouldn't have cognates in so many remote Indo-European languages.andrewhttps://www.blogger.com/profile/08172964121659914379noreply@blogger.com